Jesus, Judas or the Devil?

John 13:2-3
2 The evening meal was being served, and the devil had already prompted Judas Iscariot, son of Simon, to betray Jesus. 3 Jesus knew that the Father had put all things under his power, and that he had come from God and was returning to God;

While
some Greek manuscripts have “Jesus” (above in bold), and the versions
tend to have the name, the earliest Greek witnesses (except for A) omit
the subject, simply reading:
εἰδὼς ὅτι πάντα ἔδωκεν αὐτῷ ὁ πατὴρ εἰς τὰς χεῖρας (P66.75 א B D L W 1241)

Grammatically,
one might understand the antecedent of εἰδὼς to be of the two figures
in the prior sentence … Judas or “the devil”. The context would
quickly prevail of course. However, it seems that scribes added the
name Jesus, either intentionally or unintentionally making explicit
what was already implicit.

The Byzantine tradition and a number
of later uncials read ο Ιησους. I think that the versions may have the
reading for translational reasons and not because of their Greek
Vorlagen. The use of ΔΕ by the Bohairic has partially persuaded me on
this. The Greek loanword is frequently used to reinforce a change in
verbal subject in Bohairic with no Greek attestation. Versions aside, I
wonder how many of the Greek citations were actually related to one
another historically.

Thought for the day:
The earliest Greek
texts set the stage for later variants. Certain passages would have
been textual lightning rods for certain variations.

원문출처 : Evangelical Textual Criticism

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